CUET UG History Previous Year Question Paper 2024: Check Previous Years Question Papers

Get CUET UG Previous Year Question Paper. Score more with CUET History Question Paper with Solutions 2024. Solve CUCET (UG) Question Paper to get higher marks for the CUET UG 2025 exam.

Published on March, 7th 2025 Time To Read: 18 mins

CUET UG History Exam Overview 2024

The Common University Entrance Test (CUET) is a national-level examination conducted by the National Testing Agency (NTA) for undergraduate admissions across various central and participating universities in India. Introduced to streamline the admission process, CUET assesses students on multiple domains, including languages, subject-specific knowledge, and general aptitude.

CUET UG History Exam Structure

The CUET UG History exam is part of Section II, which focuses on domain-specific subjects. Key features include:

  • Question Format: The exam comprises 50 multiple-choice questions (MCQs), out of which candidates are required to attempt 40.
  • Duration: Candidates have 45 minutes to complete the History section.
  • Marking Scheme: Each correct answer awards 5 marks, while each incorrect response results in a deduction of 1 mark.

CUET UG History Exam Analysis 2024

The CUET UG 2024 History exam was conducted on May 18, 2024, from 1:30 PM to 2:15 PM. According to student feedback and expert reviews:

  • Difficulty Level: The paper was rated as easy to moderate.
  • Question Focus: The exam adhered closely to the NCERT syllabus, featuring a variety of question formats that tested students' factual knowledge through diverse question types, ensuring a balanced and comprehensive evaluation of their understanding and skills.

Overall, candidates who had thoroughly prepared using NCERT textbooks and had a clear understanding of key historical events and themes found the exam manageable.

CUET UG History Previous Year Question Paper 2024

1. Which of the following statements are correct?

A. Harappan seal was a most distinctive artifact of the Harappan Civilization.

B. Harappan seal motifs conveyed a meaning to those unable to read it.

C. Harappan seals had Sanskrit script on them.

D. Harappan seals had Pali and Prakrit inscriptions on them.

E. Some Harappan seals show wider spacing of script from right and cramping on the left.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. (A) and (D) only

2. (C), (D) and (E) only

3. (A), (B) and (E) only

4. (A), (C) and (D) only

Answer - 3. (A), (B) and (E) only

2. Match List-I with List-II:

List-II

List-II

A. Kushanas

I. Piyadassi

B. Ashoka

II. Devputra

C. Samudragupta

III. Prayaga Prashasti

D. Harisena

IV. Court poet

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. (A) - (II), (B) - (I), (C) - (IV), (D) - (III)

2. (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (III), (D) - (IV)

3. (A) - (IV), (B) - (III), (C) - (II), (D) - (I)

4. (A) - (II), (B) - (I), (C) - (III), (D) - (IV)

Answer - 1. (A) - (II), (B) - (I), (C) - (IV), (D) - (III)

3. Name the first site from where the Indus Valley Civilization was discovered.

1. Harappa

2. Rakhigarhi

3. Hulas

4. Sinauli

Answer - 1. Harappa

4. Match List-I with List-II:

List-I

List-II

A. Alexander Greenlaw

I. Documenting the inscriptions on the temple walls

B. John Marshall

II. Visits Vijayanagara in 1800

C. J.F. Fleet

III. Conservation works of Vijayanagara began under him

D. Colin Mackenzie

IV. Detailed photography at Hampi

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (II), (D) - (I)

2. (A) - (IV), (B) - (III), (C) - (I), (D) - (II)

3. (A) - (IV), (B) - (I), (C) - (III), (D) - (II)

4. (A) - (I), (B) - (IV), (C) - (III), (D) - (II)

Answer - 2. (A) - (IV), (B) - (III), (C) - (I), (D) - (II)

5. Match List-I with List-II:

List-I

List-II

A. Duarte Barbosa

I. Morocco

B. Marco Polo

II. Spain

C. Ibn Battuta

III. Portugal

D. Antonio Monserrate

IV. Italy

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (IV), (D) - (III)

2. (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (II)

3. (A) - (I), (B) - (III), (C) - (IV), (D) - (II)

4. (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (II), (D) - (I)

Answer - 2. (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (II)

6. Match List-I with List-II:

List-I

List-II

A. Pataliputra

I. Prakrit name of Rajgir, Bihar

B. Rajgaha

II. Present day Coastal Odisha

C. Kalinga

III. Present day Patna

D. Arthasastra

IV. Kautilya

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. (A) - (III), (B) - (I), (C) - (II), (D) - (IV)

2. (A) - (I), (B) - (III), (C) - (II), (D) - (IV)

3. (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (IV), (D) - (III)

4. (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (II)

Answer -1. (A) - (III), (B) - (I), (C) - (II), (D) - (IV)

7. Which of the following statements are correct?

A. Mahabharata has over 1,00,000 verses.

B. Mahabharata was written by Valmiki.

C. V.S. Sukthankar is associated with the critical edition of Mahabharata.

D. The critical edition of Mahabharata took 47 years to complete.

E. The critical edition of Mahabharata ran into over 13,000 pages.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. (A) and (B) only

2. (B) and (E) only

3. (A), (C), (D) and (E) only

4. (B) and (C) only

Answer -3. (A), (C), (D) and (E) only

8. Match List-I with List-II:

List-I

List-II

A. Kula

I. Larger network of kinfolk

B. Jati

II. Families

C. Vamsha

III. People

D. Jana

IV. Lineage

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (III), (D) - (IV)

2. (A) - (IV), (B) - (III), (C) - (II), (D) - (I)

3. (A) - (II), (B) - (I), (C) - (IV), (D) - (III)

4. (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (II)

Answer -3. (A) - (II), (B) - (I), (C) - (IV), (D) - (III)

9. Match List-I with List-II:

List-I

List-II

(A) Meghe Dhaka Tara

(I) Govind Nihalani

(B) Garam Hawa

(II) Habib Tanvir

(C) Tamas

(III) Ritvik Ghatak

(D) Jis Lahore Nahin Vekhya O Jamya-e-nai

(IV) M.S. Sathyu

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) (A) - (IV), (B) - (III), (C) - (II), (D) - (I)

(2) (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (II)

(3) (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (III), (D) - (IV)

(4) (A) - (II), (B) - (I), (C) - (IV), (D) - (III)

Answer -(2) (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (II)

10. Who was the first woman to be ordained as bhikkhuni?

1. Sigala

2. Karuni Pajapati

3. Mahapajapati Gotami

4. Punna

Answer -3. Mahapajapati Gotami

11. Who amongst the following were the principal deities of the Vedic pantheon?

1. Brahma, Vishnu, Shiva

2. Vishnu, Shiva, Indra

3. Agni, Indra, Soma

4. Agni, Varuna, Indra

Answer -3. Agni, Indra, Soma

12. Which of the following statements are not correct?

(A) Vinay Pitaka does not describe the rules for monks.

(B) Buddhism grew only after the death of Buddha.

(C) Sutta Pitaka are the verses composed by bhikkunis.

(D) Punna was a rich land-lady.

(E) The word Chaitya may have been derived from the word chita.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) (D) and (E) only

(2) (A), (B) and (D) only

(3) (C) and (E) only

(4) (B), (D) and (E) only

Answer -(2) (A), (B) and (D) only

13. Madras, Bombay, and Calcutta were the anglicised names of where the British first set up trading posts.

1. Cities

2. Villages

3. Towns

4. Capitals

Answer - 2. Villages

14. Which of the following statements are correct?

A. Guru Arjan compiled Guru Nanak’s hymns in the Adi Granth Sahib.

B. Guru Tegh Bahadur laid the foundation of the Khalsa Panth.

C. Guru Nanak composed the Guru Granth Sahib.

D. Mirabai was a Maratha princess.

E. Mirabai was a Rajput princess.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. (A) and (D) only

2. (C) and (D) only

3. (B) and (C) only

4. (A) and (E) only

Answer - 4. (A) and (E) only

15. Which Sufi teacher was also known as the ‘Gharib Nawaz’?

1. Shaikh Nizamuddin Auliya

2. Khwaja Muinuddin

3. Amir Khusrau

4. Shaikh Qutbuddin Bakhtiyar Kaki

Answer - 2. Khwaja Muinuddin

16. Lord Jagannatha is a form of which God?

1. Surya

2. Vishnu

3. Shiva

4. Brahma

Answer - 2. Vishnu

17. Which among the following travellers visited the city of Vijayanagara during the 15th century?

A. Domingo Paes

B. Abdur Razzaq

C. Afanasii Nikitin

D. Fernao Nuniz

E. Nicolo de Conti

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. (B), (C) and (E) only

2. (C), (D) and (E) only

3. (A), (B) and (D) only

4. (B), (C) and (D) only

Answer - 1. (B), (C) and (E) only

18. Match List-I with List-II:

List-I

List-II

A. Terracotta models of plough

I. Kalibangan

B. Ploughed field

II. Shortughai

C. Traces of canals

III. Dholavira

D. Water reservoirs

IV. Cholistan

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. (A) - (IV), (B) - (I), (C) - (II), (D) - (III)

2. (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (IV), (D) - (III)

3. (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (III), (D) - (IV)

4. (A) - (IV), (B) - (III), (C) - (II), (D) - (I)

Answer - 1. (A) - (IV), (B) - (I), (C) - (II), (D) - (III)

19. Who, amongst the following, founded the Vijayanagara Empire?

1. Krishnadeva Raya

2. Harihara and Bukka

3. Raja Raya

4. Rajendra II

Answer - 2. Harihara and Bukka

20. Match List-I with List-II:

List-I

List-II

A. Shell

I. Shortughai

B. Lapis Lazuli

II. Nageshwar

C. Carnelian

III. South Rajasthan

D. Steatite

IV. Lothal

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (II)

2. (A) - (II), (B) - (I), (C) - (IV), (D) - (III)

3. (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (III), (D) - (IV)

4. (A) - (IV), (B) - (III), (C) - (II), (D) - (I)

Answer - 2. (A) - (II), (B) - (I), (C) - (IV), (D) - (III)

21. Match List-I with List-II:

List-I

List-II

A. Mahals

I. Territorial unit

B. Pahariyas and Santhals

II. Permanent Settlement

C. 1793

III. Rajmahal hills

D. Taluq

IV. Estates

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (III), (D) - (IV)

2. (A) - (IV), (B) - (III), (C) - (II), (D) - (I)

3. (A) - (IV), (B) - (III), (C) - (I), (D) - (II)

4. (A) - (II), (B) - (I), (C) - (IV), (D) - (III)

Answer - 2. (A) - (IV), (B) - (III), (C) - (II), (D) - (I)

22. Which of the following statements are correct?

A. Moneylenders were called ‘dikus’.

B. Zamindars hired the Santhals to reclaim land.

C. Santhals were merchants.

D. Land of the Santhals was demarcated as ‘Damin-i-koh’.

E. Santhals charged heavy land revenue from dikus moneylenders.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. (A), (B) and (C) only

2. (C) and (E) only

3. (A), (B) and (D) only

4. (C) and (D) only

Answer - 3. (A), (B) and (D) only

23. Which of the following statements are true about the zamindars?

A. Milkiyat lands were cultivated for the general use of the people.

B. Zamindars could sell, bequeath, or mortgage the milkiyat lands.

C. Zamindars collected revenue on behalf of themselves.

D. Most Zamindars had fortresses as well as armed contingents.

E. Control over military resources was another source of power for the Zamindars.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. (A), (D) and (E) only

2. (C), (D) and (E) only

3. (A), (B) and (C) only

4. (B), (D) and (E) only

Answer - 4. (B), (D) and (E) only

24. Kauravas and Pandavas belonged to which ruling family?

1. Kuru

2. Panchal

3. Magadha

4. Vatsa

Answer - 1. Kuru

25. Which report reproduced zamindars’ and ryots’ petitions as appendices for consideration of the British Parliament?

1. The First Report

2. The Seventh Report

3. The Sixth Report

4. The Fifth Report

Answer - 4. The Fifth Report

26. The rebel leaders issued Proclamations and _____ to propagate their ideas during the 1857 revolt.

1. Cartridges

2. Ishtahars

3. Sepoys

4. Taluqdars

Answer -2. Ishtahars

27. In 1857 “the life has gone out of the body” was said in reference to which state?

1. Jhansi

2. Awadh

3. Kanpur

4. Delhi

Answer - 2. Awadh

28. Which of the following statements are correct?

A. Bell of arms was a store room in which weapons were kept.

B. The army of Awadh supported the British.

C. Firangi is a term of Persian origin applied to the British by the rebels.

D. The 7th Awadh Irregular Cavalry accepted the new cartridges in early May.

E. Local leaders emerged, urging peasants, zamindars and tribals to revolt.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. (A), (B) and (C) only

2. (B) and (D) only

3. (A), (C) and (E) only

4. (D) and (E) only

Answer - 3. (A), (C) and (E) only

29. Match List-I with List-II:

List-I

List-II

A. Nana Sahib

I. Awadh

B. Rani Lakshmi Bai

II. Arrah

C. Kunwar Singh

III. Kanpur

D. Birjis Qadr

IV. Jhansi

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (III), (D) - (IV)

2. (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (IV), (D) - (III)

3. (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (II), (D) - (I)

4. (A) - (II), (B) - (I), (C) - (III), (D) - (IV)

Answer - 3. (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (II), (D) - (I)

30.Who was the leader of the Santhal Revolt of 1855-56?

1. Birsa Munda

2. Gonoo

3. Sidhu Manjhi

4. Shah Mal

Answer - 3. Sidhu Manjhi

31. Who fought in the famous Battle of Chinhat in which the British forces under Henry Lawrence were defeated?

1. Shah Mal

2. Maulvi Ahmadullah Shah

3. Birjis Qadr

4. Kunwar Singh

Answer - 2. Maulvi Ahmadullah Shah

32. Who was the Commissioner of Lucknow when the rebels besieged it during the Revolt of 1857?

1. Colin Campbell

2. Henry Lawrence

3. James Outram

4. Henry Havelock

Answer - 2. Henry Lawrence

33. The Sunset Law was associated with:

1. Zamindari System/Permanent Settlement

2. British Navy

3. Imperial Court

4. Freedom Movement

Answer - 1. Zamindari System/Permanent Settlement

34. During his ‘Salt March,’ Gandhiji began walking towards the ocean from his ashram, located at:

1. Ahmedabad

2. Sabarmati

3. Wardha

4. Kochrab

Answer - 1. Ahmedabad

35. Mahatma Gandhi’s Salt March was notable as the first nationalist activity focused on:

1. Women

2. Lord Irwin

3. Subhas Chandra Bose

4. 15 March, 1930

Answer - 1. Women

36. “Purna Swaraj” as the goal of nationalism in India was aimed to achieve:

1. Partial freedom

2. Complete independence

3. Indian identity

4. Partition

Answer - 2. Complete independence

37. Which of the following statements of Gandhiji made at the opening of Banaras Hindu University are true?

A. Gandhiji charged the Indian elite with a lack of concern for the laboring poor.

B. Gandhiji was not worried about the contrast between the “richly bedecked noblemen” and millions of poor Indians.

C. Gandhiji said, “Our salvation can only come through lawyers, doctors, and rich landlords.”

D. Gandhiji emphasized that farmers are going to secure the salvation of India.

E. Gandhiji told the privileged invitees, “Strip yourself of this jewelry and hold it in trust for your countrymen.”

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. (A), (B) and (C) only

2. (C), (D) and (E) only

3. (B), (C) and (D) only

4. (A), (D) and (E) only

Answer - 4. (A), (D) and (E) only

38. Match List-I with List-II:

List-I

List-II

A. Khilafat Movement

I. Mahatma Gandhi’s biographer

B. Jallianwala Bagh Massacre

II. Turkish ruler

C. Kemal Ataturk

III. 1919

D. Louis Fisher

IV. 1919 - 1920

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (III), (D) - (IV)

2. (A) - (I), (B) - (IV), (C) - (II), (D) - (III)

3. (A) - (III), (B) - (I), (C) - (IV), (D) - (II)

4. (A) - (IV), (B) - (III), (C) - (II), (D) - (I)

Answer - 4. (A) - (IV), (B) - (III), (C) - (II), (D) - (I)

39. Who was the Judge who presided over Gandhiji’s trial after the withdrawal of the Non-Cooperation Movement?

1. Justice C.N. Broomfield

2. Justice William Hodges

3. Justice Joseph Noel

4. Justice Thomas Barker

Answer - 1. Justice C.N. Broomfield

40. When were separate electorates first created by the British Colonial Government?

1. 1919

2. 1923

3. 1909

4. 1907

Answer - 3. 1909

Read the passage and answer the five questions that follow.

Mughal chronicles, especially the Akbar Nama, written by Abu’l Fazl, have bequeathed a vision of empire in which agency rests almost solely with the emperor, while the rest of the kingdom has been portrayed as following his orders. Yet if we look more closely at the rich information, these histories provide information about the apparatus of the Mughal State from which we may be able to understand the ways in which the imperial organization was dependent on several different institutions to be able to function effectively. One important pillar of the Mughal State was the nobility

41. Mughal chronicles viewed the emperors as supreme sovereign because:

1. Nobility wanted him to be one.

2. Vision of empire viewed the emperor as the sole ruler.

3. Chronicles were a rich source of history.

4. Imperial administration was weak.

Answer - 2. Vision of empire viewed the emperor as the sole ruler.

42. Which section of the Mughal Court was viewed as very significant?

1. Imperial vision

2. The Empire

3. Nobility

4. Mughal Chronicles

Answer - 3. Nobility

43. Which chronicle says that the entire kingdom has to follow the king’s orders?

1. Urdu Akhbar

2. Badshah Nama

3. Akbar Nama

4. Kitabkhana

Answer - 3. Akbar Nama

44. The Mughal imperial administrative apparatus was effectively dependent on:

1. Travellers

2. Nobles

3. Masses

4. Mir Bakshi

Answer - 2. Nobles

45. Who is the author of Akbar Nama?

1. Chandrabhan Barahman

2. Muhammad Kazim

3. Lahori

4. Abu’l Fazl

Answer - 4. Abu’l Fazl

Read the passage and anwer the five questions that follow :

The Constituent Assembly deliberated upon the Indian Constitution, which came into effect on 26 January, 1950. It has the dubious distinction of being the longest in the world. But its length and complexity are perhaps understandable when one considers the country's size and diversity. At Independence, India was not merely large and diverse, but also deeply divided. A Constitution designed to keep the country together, and to take it forward, had necessarily to be an elaborate, carefully-worked-out, and painstakingly drafted document. For one thing, it sought to heal wounds of the past and the present, to make Indians of different classes, castes and communities come together in a shared political experiment. For another, it sought to nurture democratic institutions.

46. When did the Constitution of India come into force?

1. 26th January, 1950

2. 15th August, 1947

3. 31st January, 1929

4. 6th November, 1949

Answer - 1. 26th January, 1950

47. Why is the Constitution of India described as the longest document in the world?

1. It is a painstakingly drafted document.

2. It is carefully worked out.

3. It imbibes culture of hierarchy.

4. The country size and diversity impacted the Constitution length.

Answer - 4. The country size and diversity impacted the Constitution length.

48. How can we say that the Constitution of India seeks to unify India?

1. It deals with the country’s problems.

2. The area of the subcontinent was under its control.

3. It was designed to keep the country’s divided classes, communities, and castes together.

4. It was to nurture democratic institutions.

Answer - 3. It was designed to keep the country’s divided classes, communities, and castes together.

49. In which body was the Constitution of India deliberated upon?

1. Parliament of India

2. Through Newspaper coverage

3. Constituent Assembly

4. Princely States

Answer - 3. Constituent Assembly

50. The nature of the Constitution imbibed the right to:

1. Cultural Rights

2. Educational Rights

3. Equality

4. Religion

Answer - 1. Cultural Rights, 2. Educational Rights, 3. Equality, 4. Religion