CUET UG Geography Previous Year Question Paper 2024: Check Previous Years Question Papers

Get CUET UG Previous Year Question Paper. Score more with CUET Geography Question Paper with Solutions 2024. Solve CUCET (UG) Question Paper to get higher marks for the CUET UG 2025 exam.

Published on March, 7th 2025 Time To Read: 17 mins

CUET UG Geography Exam Overview

The CUET UG Geography exam is one of the domain-specific tests within the CUET framework. It evaluates a candidate's understanding and knowledge of geographical concepts, theories, and applications. The exam structure typically includes multiple-choice questions (MCQs) covering various topics such as physical geography, human geography, world geography, and environmental geography.

CUET UG Geography Exam Analysis 2024

The CUET UG 2024 Geography exam was conducted on May 17, 2024, during the first shift from 10:00 AM to 10:45 AM. The question paper consisted of 50 questions, out of which candidates were required to attempt 40. Each question carried 5 marks, making the total possible score 200 marks.

Difficulty Level:

The overall difficulty level of the Geography paper was reported to be easy to moderate. Students found the questions to be direct and largely based on standard geographical concepts.

Question Distribution and Topics Covered:

The exam featured a mix of question types, including factual, theoretical, match-the-following, statement-based, and case studies. Key topics addressed in the paper included:

  • Pillars of Human Development
  • Population – Age-Sex Pyramid
  • Geographers – State country as a living organism
  • Definitions in Human Geography
  • Case Studies on Cottage Industry and Jhabua District
  • Highest Population Growth in 2001
  • Landlocked Harbours
  • Subsistence Agriculture
  • First Human Development Report
  • Rhine Waterways

Student Reactions:

Candidates who appeared for the exam expressed that the paper was manageable within the allotted time. The straightforward nature of the questions allowed students to attempt them with confidence.

Conclusion:

The CUET UG 2024 Geography exam maintained a balanced approach, assessing candidates on a broad spectrum of geographical topics. The easy to moderate difficulty level, coupled with direct questions, provided a fair testing ground for aspirants aiming to secure admission to undergraduate geography programs.

CUET UG Geography Previous Year Question Paper 2024

1. Which of the following is a land-locked harbour?

(1) Paradwip port

(2) Tuticorin port

(3) Haldia port

(4) Visakhapatnam port

Answer- (4) Visakhapatnam port

2. Which of the following ports faces the problem of silt accumulation?

(1) Mumbai port

(2) New Mangalore port

(3) Kolkata port

(4) Paradwip port

Answer- (3) Kolkata port

3. Where is the headquarters of the ‘Organisation of the Petroleum Exporting Countries’ (OPEC)?

(1) Montevideo

(2) Vienna

(3) Minsk

(4) Aden

Answer- (2) Vienna

4. The General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade (GATT) was transformed into the World Trade Organization in ____________ .

Fill in the blank with the correct option.

(1) 1995

(2) 1991

(3) 2005

(4) 1976

Answer- (1) 1995

5. Pykara Hydroelectric Plant was built in__________ .

Fill in the blank with the correct option.

(1) 1929

(2) 1931

(3) 1932

(4) 1942

Answer- (3) 1932

6. The total utilisable water resources in India is about _________ cubic km.

Fill in the blank with the correct option.

(1) 4,000

(2) 1,969

(3) 1,869

(4) 1,122

Answer- (4) 1,122

7. The first radio programme was broadcast in India in ________ .

Fill in the blank with the correct option.

(1) 1910

(2) 1913

(3) 1923

(4) 1932

Answer- (3) 1923

8. Canberra was planned by ______ .

Fill in the blank with the correct option.

(1) Patrick Geddes

(2) Walter Burley Griffin

(3) Jean Gottmann

(4) George Zipf

Answer- (2) Walter Burley Griffin

9. Match List-I with List-II:

List-I (Approaches in Human Geography)

List-II (Broad features)

(A) Areal Differentiation

(I) Identifying the uniqueness of any region and understanding how and why it is different

(B) Spatial Organisation

(II) Application of quantitative techniques in Geography

(C) Behavioural School

(III) Discontent with quantitative revolution and its dehumanized manner of doing Geography

(D) Post-modernism

(IV) Focus on local context

Options:

(1) (A) – (I), (B) – (III), (C) – (II), (D) – (IV)

(2) (A) – (I), (B) – (III), (C) – (IV), (D) – (II)

(3) (A) – (I), (B) – (II), (C) – (IV), (D) – (III)

(4) (A) – (III), (B) – (IV), (C) – (I), (D) – (II)

Answer- (1) (A) – (I), (B) – (III), (C) – (II), (D) – (IV)

10. Identify the correct statements with reference to the characteristics of intensive subsistence agriculture dominated by wet paddy cultivation:

(A) Land holdings are very small due to high population density.

(B) Family labor leads to intensive land use.

(C) Farmyard manure is used to maintain soil fertility.

(D) Yield per unit area is low, but productivity per labor is high.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) (A), (B) and (D) only

(2) (A), (C) and (D) only

(3) (A), (B) and (C) only

(4) (B), (C) and (D) only

Answer- (3) (A), (B) and (C) only

11. Arrange the following agricultural regions from equator to pole:

(A) Commercial grain farming in the Prairies

(B) Reindeer rearing by the Eskimos

(C) Tea plantations of north-east India

(D) Primitive subsistence farming in Indonesia

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) (C), (D), (A), (B)

(2) (D), (C), (A), (B)

(3) (D), (C), (B), (A)

(4) (C), (D), (B), (A)

Answer- (2) (D), (C), (A), (B)

12. Arrange the following as per the stages of the demographic transition model:

(A) Population growth is slow due to high birth and high death rate.

(B) Fertility remains high, but mortality declines at a faster pace.

(C) Fertility declines at a faster pace, but mortality declines gradually.

(D) Population growth is slow due to low birth and low death rate.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) (A), (B), (C), (D)

(2) (A), (C), (B), (D)

(3) (D), (B), (C), (A)

(4) (D), (C), (B), (A)

Answer- (1) (A), (B), (C), (D)

13. Match List-I with List-II:

List-I (Station)

List-II (Trans-Continental Railway)

(A) Chita

(I) Australian Trans-Continental Railway

(B) Winnipeg

(II)Union Pacific Railway

(C) Broken Hill

(III)Trans-Continental Railway)

(D) Chicago

(IV)Trans-Canadian Railway

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) (A) – (I), (B) – (II), (C) – (III), (D) – (IV)

(2) (A) – (III), (B) – (IV), (C) – (I), (D) – (II)

(3) (A) – (II), (B) – (I), (C) – (IV), (D) – (III)

(4) (A) – (III), (B) – (II), (C) – (IV), (D) – (I)

Answer- (2) (A) – (III), (B) – (IV), (C) – (I), (D) – (II)

14. Arrange the following copper mines in North to South direction:

(A) Alwar

(B) Bhilwara

(C) Khetri

(D) Udaipur

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) (B), (D), (C), (A)

(2) (C), (B), (A), (D)

(3) (B), (C), (D), (A)

(4) (C), (A), (B), (D)

Answer- (4) (C), (A), (B), (D)

15. Arrange the agricultural development of India in chronological order from Independence to the present day:

(A) Green Revolution

(B) Agro-Climatic Planning

(C) Intensive Agricultural District Programme

(D) National Mission for Sustainable Agriculture

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) (C), (A), (B), (D)

(2) (B), (C), (D), (A)

(3) (B), (A), (D), (C)

(4) (D), (A), (C), (B)

Answer- (1) (C), (A), (B), (D)

16. Match List-I with List-II:

List-I (Energy Type)

List-II (Key Locations/Regions)

(A) Nuclear energy

(I) Gujarat and Rajasthan

(B) Wind energy

(II) West Coast of India

(C) Tidal energy

(III) Tarapur

(D) Geothermal energy

(IV) Manikaran

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) (A) – (I), (B) – (III), (C) – (II), (D) – (IV)

(2) (A) – (III), (B) – (II), (C) – (I), (D) – (IV)

(3) (A) – (III), (B) – (IV), (C) – (I), (D) – (II)

(4) (A) – (II), (B) – (IV), (C) – (III), (D) – (I)

Answer- (2) (A) – (III), (B) – (II), (C) – (I), (D) – (IV)

17 Which of the following statements are correct with respect to land degradation?

(A) All degraded lands are wasteland.

(B) All degraded lands may not be wasteland, but unchecked process of development may lead the conversion to wasteland.

(C) Land degradation is a decline in productive capacity.

(D) Waterlogged, marshy areas and gullied lands are types of degraded lands.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) (A), (C) and (D) only

(2) (A), (B) and (D) only

(3) (A), (B) and (C) only

(4) (B), (C) and (D) only

Answer- (4) (B), (C) and (D) only

18 Which statement is not correct about the Rhine waterways?

(A) It is navigable for 700 km.

(B) It flows through a rich coalfield and has a prosperous manufacturing area.

(C) Ocean-going vessels can reach up to Cologne.

(D) It connects the industrial areas of Switzerland, France, and Russia.

Answer- (D) It connects the industrial areas of Switzerland, France, and Russia.

19 Arrange the following states in descending order of their population density as per Census of India, 2011:

(A) West Bengal

(B) Uttar Pradesh

(C) Kerala

(D) Tamil Nadu

Answer- (B) Uttar Pradesh

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) (D), (A), (B), (C)

(2) (A), (C), (B), (D)

(3) (B), (A), (D), (C)

(4) (A), (B), (D), (C)

20 Match List-I with List-II:

List-I (Type of Town)

List-II (Example)

(A) Industrial

(I) Mhow

(B) Commercial

(II) Katni

(C) Transport

(III) Satna

(D) Garrison

(IV) Modinagar

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) (A) – (IV), (B) – (III), (C) – (II), (D) – (I)

(2) (A) – (I), (B) – (III), (C) – (IV), (D) – (II)

(3) (A) – (II), (B) – (I), (C) – (IV), (D) – (III)

(4) (A) – (III), (B) – (IV), (C) – (I), (D) – (II)

Answer- (1) (A) – (IV), (B) – (III), (C) – (II), (D) – (I)

21 Identify the correct statements about a metropolis:

(A) It is often the chief centre of some form of activity.

(B) It could be an administrative, commercial, or industrial centre.

(C) It generally serves a small hinterland.

(D) It is a very large city or agglomeration of population.

Options:

(1) (A), (B) and (D) only

(2) (A), (C) and (D) only

(3) (A), (B) and (C) only

(4) (B), (C) and (D) only

Answer- (1) (A), (B) and (D) only

22Match List-I with List-II:

List-I (Economic Activity)

List-II (Example)

(A) Quaternary

(I) Manufacturing

(B) Secondary

(II) Mining

(C) Tertiary

(III) Taxi services

(D) Primary

(IV) Research scientist

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) (A) – (I), (B) – (II), (C) – (III), (D) – (IV)

(2) (A) – (III), (B) – (II), (C) – (I), (D) – (IV)

(3) (A) – (IV), (B) – (I), (C) – (III), (D) – (II)

(4) (A) – (III), (B) – (IV), (C) – (I), (D) – (II)

Answer- (3) (A) – (IV), (B) – (I), (C) – (III), (D) – (II)

23 Identify the correct statements with reference to oil refineries in India:

(A) Digboi is a market-based oil refinery.

(B) Tatipaka Oil Refinery is located in Andhra Pradesh.

(C) Numaligarh Oil Refinery is located in northeast India.

(D) Bina Oil Refinery is located in Madhya Pradesh.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) (A), (B) and (D) only

(2) (A), (B) and (C) only

(3) (A), (C) and (D) only

(4) (B), (C) and (D) only

Answer- (4) (B), (C) and (D) only

24 Identify the correct statements about transportation in India:

(A) Atal Tunnel passes through Pir Panjal Range.

(B) About 80% of Indian Railway track is of metre gauge.

(C) The Inland Waterways Authority was set up in 1986.

(D) The first National Waterway is on the Ganga.

Options:

(1) (A), (C) and (D) only

(2) (B), (C) and (D) only

(3) (A), (B) and (C) only

(4) (A), (C) and (D) only

Answer- (2) (B), (C) and (D) only

Read the given passage carefully and answer the five questions that follow.

Cottage industry is the smallest manufacturing unit. The artisans use local raw materials and simple tools to produce everyday goods in their homes with the help of their family members or part-time labour. Finished products may be for consumption in the same household or for sale in local (village) markets. Capital and transportation do not wield much influence as this type of manufacturing has low commercial significance and most of the tools are devised locally. Some common everyday products produced in this sector of manufacturing include foodstuff, fabrics, mats, containers, tools, furniture, shoes and figurines of wood from the forest, shoes, thongs and other articles from leather, pottery and bricks from clays and stones. Goldsmiths make jewellery of gold, silver and bronze. Some artefacts and crafts are made out of bamboo and wood obtained locally from the forests.

Small scale manufacturing is distinguished from household industries by its production techniques and place of manufacture (a workshop outside the home/cottage of the producer). This type of manufacturing uses local raw materials, simple power-driven machines and semi-skilled labour. It provides employment and raises local purchasing power. Therefore, countries like India, China, Indonesia and Brazil, etc. have developed labour-intensive small scale manufacturing in order to provide employment to their population.

Large scale manufacturing involves a large market, various raw materials, enormous energy, specialised workers, advanced technology, assembly-line mass production and large capital. This kind of manufacturing developed in the last 200 years, in the United Kingdom, Northeastern USA and Europe. Now it has diffused almost all over the world.

25 The small-scale manufacturing and the cottage manufacturing are distinguished on the basis of ____________.

Fill in the blank with the correct option.

(1) raw materials

(2) quantity of production

(3) production techniques

(4) scale of profits

Answer- (3) production techniques

26 Which one of the following is not a feature of small scale manufacturing ?

Fill in the blank with the correct option.

(1) It engages semi-skilled labour force.

(2) It provides employment and raises local purchasing power.

(3) Artisans produce goods at home with family or part-time labor.

(4) It is labor-intensive manufacturing.

Answer- (3) Artisans produce goods at home with family or part-time labor.

27 Identify the feature of the cottage industry:

(1) Use of advanced technology

(2) Specialized workers

(3) Finished products for household consumption

(4) Mass production

Answer- (3) Finished products for household consumption

28 Large-scale manufacturing is not:

Fill in the blank with the correct option.

(1) capital-intensive

(2) energy-intensive

(3) technology-intensive

(4) labor-intensive

Answer- (4) labor-intensive

29 Which of the following is not a product of cottage industry?

Options:

(1) Mat

(2) Shoes

(3) Car

(4) Basket

Answer- (3) Car

Read the given passage carefully and answer the five questions that follow.

Jhabua district is located in the westernmost agro-climatic zone in Madhya Pradesh. It is, in fact, one of the five most backward districts of the country. It is characterised by a high concentration of tribal population (mostly Bhils). The people suffer due to poverty which has been accentuated by the high rate of resource degradation, both forest and land. The Watershed Management Programmes funded by both the ministries of “Rural Development” and “Agriculture”, Government of India, have been successfully implemented in Jhabua district which has gone a long way in preventing land degradation and improving soil quality. Watershed Management Programmes acknowledge the linkage between land, water and vegetation and attempt to improve livelihoods of people through natural resource management and community participation. In the past five years, the programmes funded by the Ministry of Rural Development alone (implemented by Rajiv Gandhi Mission for Watershed Management) have treated 20 percent of the total area under Jhabua district. The Petlawad block of Jhabua is located in the northernmost part of the district and represents an interesting and successful case of Government-NGO partnership and community participation in managing watershed programmes. The Bhils in Petlawad block, for example, (Sat Rundi hamlet of Karravat village) through their own efforts, have revitalized large parts of Common Property Resources (CPR). Each household planted and maintained one tree on the common property. They also have planted fodder grass on the pasture land and adopted social-fencing of these lands for at least two years. Even after that, they say, there would be no open grazing on these lands, but stall feeding of cattle, and they are thus confident that the pastures they have developed would sustain their cattle in future. An interesting aspect of this experience is that before the community embarked upon the process of management of the pasture, there was encroachment on this land by a villager from an adjoining village. The villagers called the Tehsildar to ascertain the rights onthe common land. The ensuing conflict was tackled by the villagers by offering to make the defaulter encroaching on the CPR, a member of their user group and sharing the benefits of greening the common lands/pastures.

30 Petlawad block of Jhabua is located in which part of the district?

(1) Southernmost

(2) Westernmost

(3) Northernmost

(4) Easternmost

Answer- (3) Northernmost

31 Which tribal community has a high concentration in the district of Jhabua?

Options:

(1) Bhils

(2) Munda

(3) Santhal

(4) Meena

Answer- (1) Bhils

32 The Watershed Management Programmes, which have been successfully implemented in Jhabua, were funded by _______.

Fill in the blank with the correct option.

(1) Ministry of Tourism

(2) Ministries of Rural Development and Agriculture

(3) Ministry of Road Transport and Highways

(4) Ministry of Tribal Affairs

Answer- (2) Ministries of Rural Development and Agriculture

33 Which among the following was not used by the Bhils to revitalize Common Property Resources?

(1) Plantation of fodder grass

(2) Plantation of trees

(3) Open grazing

(4) Social-fencing

Answer- (3) Open grazing

34 Jhabua district is located in which agro-climatic zone of Madhya Pradesh?

(1) Northernmost

(2) Southernmost

(3) Easternmost

(4) Westernmost

Answer- (4) Westernmost

35 Who defined Human Geography as “Conception resulting from a more synthetic knowledge of the physical laws governing our earth and of the relations between the living beings which inhabit it”?

Options:

(1) Ratzel

(2) Blache

(3) Taylor

(4) Semple

Answer- (2) Blache

36 “Geography is the study of human beings and environment where nature is supreme that dictates the lifestyle of human beings.” Identify the geographical approach referred to in this statement from the following.

(1) Possibilism

(2) Environmental Determinism

(3) Behaviouralism

(4) Humanism

Answer- (2) Environmental Determinism

37 Which of the following geographers described the ‘state/country’ as a ‘living organism’?

Options:

(1) French

(2) German

(3) Australian

(4) Indian

Answer- (2) German

38 Which of the following country’s population does not have a triangular-shaped age-sex pyramid?

Options:

(1) Australia

(2) Bangladesh

(3) Nigeria

(4) Mexico

Answer- (1) Australia

39 Which of the following approaches was initially proposed by the International Labour Organization?

Options:

(1) Basic needs approach

(2) Income approach

(3) Capability approach

(4) Welfare approach

Answer- (1) Basic needs approach

40 Which of the following is not one of the pillars of Human Development?

Options:

(1) Equity

(2) Affordability

(3) Sustainability

(4) Empowerment

Answer- (2) Affordability

41 In which country is milk transported from farms to factories through pipelines?

Options:

(1) India

(2) New Zealand

(3) Canada

(4) Mexico

Answer- (2) New Zealand

42. What is the pattern of settlement that develops around a lake?

(1) Rectangular pattern

(2) Linear pattern

(3) T-shaped pattern

(4) Circular pattern

Answer- (4) Circular pattern

43. Which of the following is not a push factor for the migration of the rural population in India?

(1) High population pressure on the land

(2) Availability of regular work

(3) Lack of basic infrastructural facilities like health care, education, etc.

(4) Local conflicts

Answer- (2) Availability of regular work

44. When and by whom was the first Human Development Report published?

(1) WHO in 1992

(2) UNDP in 1992

(3) WHO in 1991

(4) UNDP in 1990

Answer- (4) UNDP in 1990

45. Among the following, which was the least populated state in 2011?

(1) Haryana

(2) Tripura

(3) Jharkhand

(4) Sikkim

Answer- (4) Sikkim

46. Which of the following states registered the highest population growth rate during 2001–2011?

(1) Karnataka

(2) Tamil Nadu

(3) Rajasthan

(4) Maharashtra

Answer- (3) Rajasthan

47. Dhani is an example of _____ type of rural settlements.

Fill in the blank with the correct option.

(1) Hamleted

(2) Dispersed

(3) Semi-clustered

(4) Clustered

Answer- (1) Hamleted

48. Which of the following towns developed as a satellite town?

(1) Rohtak

(2) Sindri

(3) Dispur

(4) Mhow

Answer- (1) Rohtak

49. ____ is an example of ancient towns in India.

Fill in the blank with the correct option.

(1) Madurai

(2) Hyderabad

(3) Kolkata

(4) Delhi

Answer- (1) Madurai

50.‘Boro’, ‘Aman’ and ‘Aus’ are ________.

Fill in the blank with the correct option.

(1) Tribes found in the northeastern part of India

(2) Types of folk dance

(3) Names of rice crops

(4) Types of cotton crop

Answer- (3) Names of rice crops