CUET UG Biology Previous Year Question Paper 2024: Check Previous Years Question Papers

CUET UG Biology Exam 2024

CUET UG Biology is one of the subject papers under the Common University Entrance Test (CUET) for undergraduate admissions into central universities in India. This exam tests your understanding of Biology primarily based on the NCERT syllabus. Typically, it covers topics such as:

• Reproduction in organisms (including sexual reproduction in flowering plants and human reproduction)
• Reproductive health
• Principles of inheritance and variation, including the molecular basis of inheritance
• Evolution and biodiversity
• Human health and diseases
• Ecology and ecosystems
• Biotechnology (both principles and applications)

For the 2024 session, the CUET UG Biology exam featured 40 questions for a total of 200 marks (with 5 marks per correct answer) and was conducted in a limited time frame (around 45 minutes). According to student reviews and expert analysis, the overall difficulty level was moderate, with a breakdown of the question difficulty as follows:

• Easy: 45% of the questions
• Moderate: 40%
• Difficult: 15%

Most questions were directly based on the NCERT textbooks and were largely concept-based, with some application-based, assertion-reasoning, and match-the-following questions. Compared to previous years, many students found the 2024 Biology paper slightly easier.

This exam format aims to evaluate your fundamental knowledge as well as your ability to apply biological concepts, so thorough preparation of the NCERT content is key to scoring well.

CUET UG Biology Previous Year Question Paper 2024

1. Cells present in the mature pollen grains are:

(1) Central cell and generative cell

(2) Antipodal cell and vegetative cell

(3) Vegetative cell and generative cell

(4) Filiform cell and micropylar cell

Answer - (3) Vegetative cell and generative cell

2.Match List-I with List-II:

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) (A) - (III), (B) - (I), (C) - (IV), (D) - (II)

(2) (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (II)

(3) (A) - (II), (B) - (I), (C) - (III), (D) - (IV)

(4) (A) - (IV), (B) - (III), (C) - (I), (D) - (II)

Answer - (2) (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (II)

3.Primary Endosperm Nucleus is the product of:

(1) Double fusion

(2) Triple fusion

(3) Parthenogenesis

(4) Apomixis

Answer - (2) Triple fusion

4.In humans, mammary gland is divided into lobes:

(1) 10 – 12

(2) 25 – 30

(3) 30 – 35

(4) 15 – 20

Answer - (4) 15 – 20

5.Sex in human embryo is determined by:

(1) 'X' chromosome of egg

(2) 'X' or 'Y' chromosome of sperm

(3) Only 'Y' chromosome of sperm

(4) Health of mother

Answer - (2) 'X' or 'Y' chromosome of sperm

6.Arrange the following stages of oogenesis in order of their occurrence:

(A) Ovum

(B) Oogonia

(C) Primary oocyte

(D) Secondary oocyte

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) (C), (B), (D), (A)

(2) (B), (C), (D), (A)

(3) (D), (C), (A), (B)

(4) (A), (D), (C), (B)

Answer - (2) (B), (C), (D), (A)

7.Which of the following pair of contrasting traits was not studied by Mendel?

(1) Pink and white flowers

(2) Inflated and constricted pods

(3) Axial and terminal flowers

(4) Green and yellow pods

Answer - (1) Pink and white flowers

8. Failure of chromatids to segregate during cell division cycle results in:

(1) Polyploidy

(2) Euploidy

(3) Aneuploidy

(4) Autopolyploidy

Answer - (3) Aneuploidy

9.Select the correctly matched pair about sickle cell anemia:

Genotype: Phenotype

(A) HbA HbA : Diseased phenotype

(B) HbA HbS : Diseased phenotype

(C) HbS HbS : Diseased phenotype

(D) HbS HbA : Carrier of disease

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) (C) and (D) only

(2) (A) and (C) only

(3) (B), (C) and (D) only

(4) (A), (B) and (C) only

Answer - (1) (C) and (D) only

10. Match List-I with List-II:

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) (A) - (II), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (III)

(2) (A) - (II), (B) - (I), (C) - (IV), (D) - (III)

(3) (A) - (I), (B) - (III), (C) - (II), (D) - (IV)

(4) (A) - (IV), (B) - (I), (C) - (III), (D) - (II)

Answer - (1) (A) - (II), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (III)

11. Which of the following statements are incorrect with respect to nucleotides?

(A) Purines and pyrimidines are nitrogenous bases.

(B) Nucleotides are non-enzymatic molecules.

(C) Phosphate group is linked to – OH of 5′ C of a nucleoside through phosphoester linkage.

(D) In RNA, every nucleotide residue has an additional – OH group present at 2′ position in the ribose.

(E) Thymine is an example of Pyrimidine.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) (A), (B) and (E) only

(2) (D) and (E) only

(3) (B) and (D) only

(4) (B) and (E) only

Answer - (4) (B) and (E) only

12. Arrange the given steps of DNA fingerprinting in the sequence from initiation to end:

(A) Digestion of DNA by restriction endonuclease

(B) Isolation of DNA

(C) Hybridisation using labelled VNTR probe

(D) Transferring (blotting) of separated DNA fragments to synthetic membrane

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) (A), (B), (C), (D)

(2) (A), (D), (C), (B)

(3) (B), (A), (D), (C)

(4) (C), (A), (B), (D)

Answer - (3) (B), (A), (D), (C)

13.Nucleosome is associated with ____molecules of histones.

(1) Four

(2) Nine

(3) Two

(4) Eight

Answer - (2) Nine

14.Select the observations drawn from the human genome project which are correct.

(A) The human genome contains 3164.7 million bp.

(B) The average gene consists of 3000 bases.

(C) Total number of genes is estimated at 30,000.

(D) The functions are unknown for over 50% of discovered genes.

(E) Less than 2% of the genome codes for proteins.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) (A), (B), (C) and (D) only

(2) (A), (C), (D) and (E) only

(3) (A), (C) and (E) only

(4) (A), (B), (C), (D) and (E)

Answer - (4) (A), (B), (C), (D) and (E)

15. Analogous structures are a result of:

(1) Convergent evolution

(2) Divergent evolution

(3) Parallel evolution

(4) Retrogressive evolution

Answer - (1) Convergent evolution

16. Which of the following does not affect the Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium?

(1) Natural selection

(2) Genetic drift

(3) Gene pool

(4) Gene migration

Answer - (3) Gene pool

17.Which of the following primates was more like an ape?

(1) Homo erectus

(2) Dryopithecus

(3) Australopithecines

(4) Ramapithecus

Answer - (2) Dryopithecus

18.Match List-I with List-II:

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) (A) - (II), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (III)

(2) (A) - (II), (B) - (I), (C) - (IV), (D) - (III)

(3) (A) - (IV), (B) - (I), (C) - (II), (D) - (III)

(4) (A) - (IV), (B) - (I), (C) - (III), (D) - (II)

Answer - (1) (A) - (II), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (III)

19. Identify the incorrect statement/s:

(A) Intestinal perforation and death may occur in severe cases of typhoid infection.

(B) Common cold is caused by Rhinoviruses.

(C) Lips and fingernails may turn grey to bluish colour in severe cases of pneumonia.

(D) Pneumonia is caused by Salmonella.

(E) Typhoid fever could be confirmed by Widal test.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) (A), (C) and (D) only

(2) (B) and (E) only

(3) (D) only

(4) (A) and (D) only

Answer - (3) (D) only

20.Match List-I with List-II:

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) (A) - (IV), (B) - (III), (C) - (I), (D) - (II)

(2) (A) - (II), (B) - (IV), (C) - (III), (D) - (I)

(3) (A) - (II), (B) - (I), (C) - (IV), (D) - (III)

(4) (A) - (IV), (B) - (I), (C) - (III), (D) - (II)

Answer - (4) (A) - (IV), (B) - (I), (C) - (III), (D) - (II)

21. Smack is chemically:

(1) Diacetyl morphine

(2) Cocaine

(3) Benzodiazepine

(4) Amphetamine

Answer - (1) Diacetyl morphine

22. Antibodies are secreted by:

(1) T-Cells

(2) B-Cells

(3) α-Cells

(4) β-Cells

Answer - (2) B-Cells

23.In sewage treatment, flocs are:

(1) The solids that settle during sedimentation.

(2) The supernatant that is formed above the primary sludge.

(3) The masses of bacteria associated with fungal filaments.

(4) The bacteria which grow anaerobically and are also called anaerobic sludge digesters.

Answer - (3) The masses of bacteria associated with fungal filaments.

24. Match List-I with List-II:

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) (A) - (II), (B) - (I), (C) - (IV), (D) - (III)

(2) (A) - (III), (B) - (I), (C) - (IV), (D) - (II)

(3) (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (II), (D) - (I)

(4) (A) - (II), (B) - (III), (C) - (I), (D) - (IV)

Answer - (2) (A) - (III), (B) - (I), (C) - (IV), (D) - (II)

25.The beetle used as a biocontrol agent for aphids and mosquitoes is:

(1) Trichoderma

(2) Dragonflies

(3) Ladybird

(4) Silver fish

Answer - (3) Ladybird

26. Downstream processing method involves:

(1) Identification

(2) Amplification

(3) Fermentation

(4) Purification

Answer - (4) Purification

27. Which of the following is not the correctly matched pair of organism and its respective cell wall-degrading enzyme?

(1) Fungi – Chitinase

(2) Algae – Methylase

(3) Plant cells – Cellulase

(4) Bacteria – Lysozyme

Answer - (2) Algae – Methylase

28.Arrange the following steps involved in the transformation of bacteria in a sequence from initiation to end.

(A) Incubation of rDNA with bacterial cell on ice

(B) Treatment with divalent cations

(C) Heat shock treatment

(D) Selection on antibiotic containing agar plate

(E) Placed them again on ice

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) (A), (B), (D), (C), (E)

(2) (B), (A), (C), (E), (D)

(3) (B), (C), (D), (A), (E)

(4) (A), (C), (B), (D), (E)

Answer - (2) (B), (A), (C), (E), (D)

29.Which of the following statements are incorrect?

(A) Fragments of DNA can be separated by ELISA.

(B) Transformation is a procedure through which a piece of DNA is introduced in a host bacterium.

(C) Recombinant DNA technology does not involve isolation of a desired DNA fragment.

(D) DNA ligases are used for stitching DNA fragments into a vector.

Choose the answer from the options given below:

(1) (A) and (C) only

(2) (A) and (B) only

(3) (B) and (C) only

(4) (A), (C) and (D) only

Answer - (1) (A) and (C) only

30.Which of the following statements are true?

(A) Milk obtained from ‘Rosie’ is nutritionally more balanced for human babies than natural human milk.

(B) Biopiracy refers to the use of bioresources without proper authorization from MNCs.

(C) GEAC is the decisive body for safety and validity of GMOs and GM research respectively.

(D) Transgenic animals help us to understand the contribution of genes in the development of disease.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) (A) and (C) only

(2) (C) and (D) only

(3) (A) and (D) only

(4) (B) and (C) only

Answer - (2) (C) and (D) only

31.Match List-I with List-II:

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (II)

(2) (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (III), (D) - (IV)

(3) (A) - (III), (B) - (II), (C) - (I), (D) - (IV)

(4) (A) - (I), (B) - (IV), (C) - (III), (D) - (II)

Answer - (1) (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (II)

32.Expand "GEAC":

(1) Genetic and Environmental Advisory Committee

(2) Gene Establishment Approval Committee

(3) Genetic Engineering Advisory Committee

(4) Genetic Engineering Approval Committee

Answer - (4) Genetic Engineering Approval Committee

33.When an insect feeds on the Bt plant, the insect dies due to the conversion of inactive protein to active protein in:

(1) Alkaline pH of the gut

(2) Acidic pH of the gut

(3) Acidic pH of saliva

(4) Alkaline pH of saliva

Answer - (1) Alkaline pH of the gut

34.Match List-I with List-II:

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (III), (D) - (IV)

(2) (A) - (IV), (B) - (III), (C) - (II), (D) - (I)

(3) (A) - (II), (B) - (I), (C) - (III), (D) - (IV)

(4) (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (II)

Answer - (2) (A) - (IV), (B) - (III), (C) - (II), (D) - (I)

35.In a country, at any time, the population has the same number of young and mature individuals. What type of growth does it reflect?

(1) Expanding

(2) Declining

(3) Stable

(4) S-shaped

Answer - (3) Stable

36.Two closely related species can co-exist indefinitely and violate Gause's ‘Competitive Exclusion Principle’ by:

(1) Eliminating the inferior species.

(2) Resource partitioning.

(3) Interacting symbiotically.

(4) Changing grazing areas.

Answer - (2) Resource partitioning.

37.The process of mineralization by microorganisms helps in the release of:

(1) Inorganic nutrients from detritus and formation of humus.

(2) Organic nutrients from humus.

(3) Inorganic nutrients from humus.

(4) Organic and inorganic nutrients from detritus.

Answer - 3) Inorganic nutrients from humus.

38.In which ecosystem is the biomass of primary consumers greater than producers?

(1) Forests

(2) Grasslands

(3) Desert

(4) Sea

Answer - (4) Sea

39.Choose the correct statements with respect to decomposition from the following:

(A) Decomposition is an anaerobic process.

(B) Decomposition rate of detritus depends upon the chemical nature of it.

(C) Water-soluble organic nutrients go into the soil and get precipitated in the process of leaching.

(D) Humification follows mineralisation.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) (B) and (D) only

(2) (A) and (C) only

(3) (B) and (C) only

(4) (A) and (D) only

Answer - (3) (B) and (C) only

40.Match List-I with List-II:

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) (A) - (IV), (B) - (III), (C) - (II), (D) - (I)

(2) (A) - (II), (B) - (I), (C) - (III), (D) - (IV)

(3) (A) - (IV), (B) - (II), (C) - (III), (D) - (I)

(4) (A) - (IV), (B) - (I), (C) - (III), (D) - (II)

Answer - (3) (A) - (IV), (B) - (II), (C) - (III), (D) - (I)

Read the passage carefully and give the answer to the next five questions :

India was amongst the first countries in the world to initiate action plans and programmes at a national level to attain total reproductive health as a social goal. These programmes called ‘family planning’ were initiated in 1951 and were periodically assessed over the past decades. Improved programmes covering wider reproduction-related areas are currently in operation. Creating awareness among the people about various reproduction-related aspects and providing facilities and support for building up a reproductively healthy society are the major tasks under these programmes.

41.Which of the following is not a sexually transmitted disease?

(1) Chlamydia

(2) Filariasis

(3) Genital herpes

(4) Trichomoniasis

Answer - (2) Filariasis

42. Which of the following statements is incorrect with respect to Medical Termination of Pregnancy?

(1) Safe during the first trimester.

(2) Legalized in India since 1971.

(3) MTPs can be performed after 24 weeks with medical opinions.

(4) 20% of global pregnancies undergo MTP annually.

Answer - (3) MTPs can be performed after 24 weeks with medical opinions.

43.Match List-I with List-II:

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) (A) - (III), (B) - (I), (C) - (II), (D) - (IV)

(2) (A) - (III), (B) - (II), (C) - (I), (D) - (IV)

(3) (A) - (IV), (B) - (III), (C) - (II), (D) - (I)

(4) (A) - (IV), (B) - (III), (C) - (I), (D) - (II)

Answer - (2) (A) - (III), (B) - (II), (C) - (I), (D) - (IV)

44. Which of the following methods of contraception is not meant for females?

(1) IUDs

(2) Lactational amenorrhea

(3) Vasectomy

(4) Condoms

Answer - (3) Vasectomy

45.'Saheli' – an oral contraceptive pill, also known as the 'Once a week' pill, was developed by:

(1) AIIMS

(2) NBRI

(3) CDRI

(4) NBPGR

Answer - (3) CDRI

Read the passage carefully and give the answers to the next five questions:

Does the number of species in a community really matter to the functioning of the ecosystem ? This is a question for which ecologists have not been able to give a definitive answer. For many decades, ecologists believed that communities with more species, generally, tend to be more stable than those with less species. According to the International Union for Conservation of Nature and Natural Resources (IUCN) (2004), the total number of plant and animal species described so far is more than 1.5 million.

46.Which of the following is not a characteristic of a stable biological community?

(1) Resistant to alien species

(2) Should not show too much variation in productivity

(3) All species are equally important for stability

(4) Resilient to occasional disturbances

Answer - (3) All species are equally important for stability

47.In the 'rivet popper hypothesis,' the 'rivet' signifies:

(1) Key species

(2) Endemic species

(3) Community

(4) Species

Answer - (4) Species

48.The scientist who proved that species richness directly correlates with the stability of a community was:

(1) Paul Ehrlich

(2) David Tilman

(3) Robert May

(4) Edward Wilson

Answer - (2) David Tilman

49.Among the vertebrates, which of the following is the most species-rich group?

(1) Reptiles

(2) Fishes

(3) Insects

(4) Mammals

Answer - (2) Fishes

50.The following are the various hypotheses proposed in explaining the greatest biological diversity in tropics except:

(1) Temperate regions are subjected to glaciations, but tropical latitudes have remained relatively undisturbed.

(2) Tropical environments have more humidity/moisture.

(3) Tropical environments are less seasonal and more constant.

(4) There is more solar energy available in the tropics which contributes to higher productivity.

Answer - (2) Tropical environments have more humidity/moisture.